Dr. Adler's criticism of our elected official who sees no grounds for impeachment was not well supported by his argument that impeachment was common in England during a time of oppression. He may be an authority on what happened in England in the fourteenth century, but that doesn't make him a good judge of whether or not flagrant impeachments were for the best. Certainly many people did not like the political use of impeachment he described any better then than we the people of the United States appreciate it now. Many of our forbears began fleeing just that kind of oppression. Could the use of impeachment to get rid of enemies in fourteenth century England have had anything to do with that? I can't conceive of any fair thinking person today wanting to return to such politically motivated practices as he describes.

Alice H. Dunn,

Pocatello